Ohr HaChaim on Reeh (devarim 11:26)

"26. Behold, I set before you today a blessing and a curse."

Why does Moshe say "Behold". If Moshe is speaking and there is nothing to look at, why not use "Shema" (hear)?

Why does Moshe use "Anochi" instead of "Ani"?

Why is "reeh" (Behold) in the singular when the rest of the loshon (language) of the parshah is plural? Note that he state "lechem" (you (plural))! So why is Reeh in singular?

The Ohr HaChaim answers, that the idea of the verse is to encourage to pursue activities that bring Olam Haba (the next world), and not an indulgence (over involvement) in this world. And someone who wants to say "I want you to opt for Olam Haba and dismiss Olam Hazeh", before one can listen to such a person -- we must know TWO things.
1). When he speaks of Olam Haba does he know what hes talking about? Has he been there?
2). When a person says forget about this world, it has nothing to offer....but does he know what olam hazeh(this physical world) has to offer for enjoyment!?!

The statement is only credible if he knows BOTH. Make sure you understand this Ohr HaChaim -- a person making this statement MUST know both.... Otherwise they will tell him, "dont tell us, tell someone who doesnt know this world".

Such a BEAUTIFUL Ohr HaChaim!!! Why? Thats why Moshe Rabbeinu says "Reeh" == LOOK AT ME!!! I have experienced OLAM HAZEH!! I was a KING!!! I have been the wealthier then the Wealthiest! And I have gone to Olam Haba to receive the Torah... And LOOK AT ME, for he has experienced both and it was known to them that he experienced both the Gashmius(physicality) and the Ruchnius(spirituality) so that people should trust his opinion!
"Reeh" means "LOOK at Me".
"Anochi" means me, and I am unique to be able to tell you in this matter.

Why is Reeh singular? That is simple the Ohr HaChaim explains, the plural would indicate there are a multitude of ways of seeing what Moshe is presenting, but its not true he says. The simplest even who hear Moshe encouraging to opt for Olam Haba, the simplest together with the wisest that this is a man is to be trusted and be believed. They ALL perceive the truth together.


The Kotzker Rebbe explains differently. What is the problem? The singular is not an issue. It is placed in front of everyone, but each and every individual sees this bracha in their own unique way! Others say he said, that G-d puts it in front of everyone, but only a number of people who really see what its all about. Later in Reeh it says you (plural) shall search for his dwelling, and though (singular) shall enter. Many will search, but few will find.... Marvelous ideas....

The above was presented to me by Rabbi Isaac Bernstein Zt"l from a shiur, which anyone can (and must) hear from www.613.org (I can be more specific if desired).

Btw, According to the Kotzker Rebbe, one should note that the Prophets were considered the head of a body supported by the nation! The singular Yiddim that may properly find haKodesh Barchu are in fact supported by all Yiddim. I must take a line I heard from Prince of Egypt (Disney Movie) only because one should give credit where due... a line in a song goes "Does the stone at the Mountains face think it is more important than the stones that form the base?" I think this rings true for the philosophy that one shouldnt judge themselves whether they are part of those able to see the Torah -- nonetheless, i think it is an amazing insight. If you really think about even the idea that an insight of Torah is being shown to show that not all insights are available. A deep insight imo, that almost causes a paradox -- We all understand the idea immediately, thats HaKodesh Barchu's Torah (a miracle really), yet I certainly would have never found such an insight. SO what does seperate those that find the deeper insights from those that dont. I would wager two things.... Intellectually there may be no difference for pure Torah learning; however, one can only imagine that according to the Kotzker Rebbe that when Moshe is saying look into the Torah, if only a few can see it, why does it end in the plural of brachas (or curse)? Curse in Judaism doesn't mean "evil" it in reality means to limit or to freeze something from growth (another blog maybe to explain this idea - please ask if needed). Moshe tells us the singular few will see the Torah because of the brachas of following it. I recall being told that learning Torah will make one upright even if they arent originally it will shape you. Surely that is true, but to properly understand Torah, not as a tool for becoming better, but to learn it leshma (for G-d's sake - ie: not for "gain") one must follow the mitzvot and cause such brachas. It is clear it is not a one way relationship, but one effects the other. I personally think this is a beautiful idea, and I enjoy my drash on it - does anyone have any others?

Devarim

The malbim says that on the Ohr haChaim that Moshe said everything on his own, but only later HaKodesh Barchu told him to re say it in a new manner. But it seems the Ohr HaChaim is saying originally it is Moshe's words.....

Here is my question on the Ohr HaChaim. If Moshe was saying these things through the desert, how could it even be how words? AS we know Moshe in devarim says words of rebuke mainly and many other mussar ideas (also expands ons ome mitzvahs). So what is the question.... If we see that in Torah Moshe mis-represents G-d ONCE (hitting the rock) and is punished horribly, well the question is obvious!

1). How could Moshe THINK to rebuke in his own words - what if he mis-represents G-d?
2). How can he even HAVE his own words? If the Shechina resides on him and he speaks (mouth to mouth) with G-d with no issue...knowing what G-d is saying (btw, they say that G-d speaks to "himself" and Neviim simply over-hear) it seems OBVIOUS that Moshe is hearing G-d's words.

At best, what can the Ohr HaChaim say? Not that they are his own words.... But one of these options:
1). They are either the exact words of G-d.
2). They are the substance of G-d's words in Moshe's own words (but i do recall Moshe complaining about speaking ;) lol).
3). Or one final difference that I think the Ohr HaChaim means. At the beginning of Matos its says "zeh hadavar asher tzivah" = it says "this", but usually it says "koh".

The Netziv explains "zeh" means that it is the EXACT word of G-d that Moshe can hear G_d and repeat instantaneously, whereas Moshe earlier (and other prophets) would become physically un-able to move and would repeat what they heard at a separate time (perhaps moments later or a day), and so "koh amar Hashem" is used. Rashi explains that in Matos how Moshe got this level of Nevuah at Sinai (I have heard the burning Bush where G-d promises to be with him at all times -- meaning he doesn't have this problem of nevuah).

I would like to say that the Ohr Hachaim is saying that its not just the substance of G-d's words (as the Malbim seems to argue), but more...they are the EXACT words. However, Moshe does not say them at the exact time when he hears G-d say them! He waits untill later.

That is why at Devarim it says "Eleh" - to differentiate not his words vs. G-d's, but G-d's words being said at the exact moment of G-d saying them (what has been the case for most of Torah) and Moshe having to wait to say them.

Why would Moshe do this? I think its simple. We know in halacha that one shouldn't rebuke or correct someone when they are in the MOMENT of their mistake (if they can prevent it). Why? they will become defensive and try to argue theirs side and rationalize it. So Moshe waits for people to have a cool collected head before stating G-d's words and thoughts.

Now Chazal's statement makes even MORE sense. What does G-d tell Moshe to do? That he should write down those words and occurrences and put them in a specific order. The words are right! Perhaps the order he said (ie: waited too little or too long and other events transpire) the words of G-d are incorrect. And though he wasnt stated explicitly by G-d to say them to bnei Yisroel, G-d's words were true (that Moshe heard) and he said them exactly as they were!

If you want to say that they aren't G-d's words one has a major problem.... Think about "Vehayah eem tishmeru et mizvoti..." We say it in the shema regularly. The Ramban seems to make an amazing point! Does Moshe make it rain? Does Moshe make esev in your sadeh (bushes in your fields)? The Ramban takes a much different answer then Ohr Hachaim (in that it is more G-d then Moshe).

The Nefesh HaChaim explains that Moshe is bittul, ONLY the shechinah speaks.

The Ohr HaChaim cant be the simple way we understand "utzmo" (ie: his own words). Everyone agrees on that, but that is my idea what he may mean :).