Devarim

The malbim says that on the Ohr haChaim that Moshe said everything on his own, but only later HaKodesh Barchu told him to re say it in a new manner. But it seems the Ohr HaChaim is saying originally it is Moshe's words.....

Here is my question on the Ohr HaChaim. If Moshe was saying these things through the desert, how could it even be how words? AS we know Moshe in devarim says words of rebuke mainly and many other mussar ideas (also expands ons ome mitzvahs). So what is the question.... If we see that in Torah Moshe mis-represents G-d ONCE (hitting the rock) and is punished horribly, well the question is obvious!

1). How could Moshe THINK to rebuke in his own words - what if he mis-represents G-d?
2). How can he even HAVE his own words? If the Shechina resides on him and he speaks (mouth to mouth) with G-d with no issue...knowing what G-d is saying (btw, they say that G-d speaks to "himself" and Neviim simply over-hear) it seems OBVIOUS that Moshe is hearing G-d's words.

At best, what can the Ohr HaChaim say? Not that they are his own words.... But one of these options:
1). They are either the exact words of G-d.
2). They are the substance of G-d's words in Moshe's own words (but i do recall Moshe complaining about speaking ;) lol).
3). Or one final difference that I think the Ohr HaChaim means. At the beginning of Matos its says "zeh hadavar asher tzivah" = it says "this", but usually it says "koh".

The Netziv explains "zeh" means that it is the EXACT word of G-d that Moshe can hear G_d and repeat instantaneously, whereas Moshe earlier (and other prophets) would become physically un-able to move and would repeat what they heard at a separate time (perhaps moments later or a day), and so "koh amar Hashem" is used. Rashi explains that in Matos how Moshe got this level of Nevuah at Sinai (I have heard the burning Bush where G-d promises to be with him at all times -- meaning he doesn't have this problem of nevuah).

I would like to say that the Ohr Hachaim is saying that its not just the substance of G-d's words (as the Malbim seems to argue), but more...they are the EXACT words. However, Moshe does not say them at the exact time when he hears G-d say them! He waits untill later.

That is why at Devarim it says "Eleh" - to differentiate not his words vs. G-d's, but G-d's words being said at the exact moment of G-d saying them (what has been the case for most of Torah) and Moshe having to wait to say them.

Why would Moshe do this? I think its simple. We know in halacha that one shouldn't rebuke or correct someone when they are in the MOMENT of their mistake (if they can prevent it). Why? they will become defensive and try to argue theirs side and rationalize it. So Moshe waits for people to have a cool collected head before stating G-d's words and thoughts.

Now Chazal's statement makes even MORE sense. What does G-d tell Moshe to do? That he should write down those words and occurrences and put them in a specific order. The words are right! Perhaps the order he said (ie: waited too little or too long and other events transpire) the words of G-d are incorrect. And though he wasnt stated explicitly by G-d to say them to bnei Yisroel, G-d's words were true (that Moshe heard) and he said them exactly as they were!

If you want to say that they aren't G-d's words one has a major problem.... Think about "Vehayah eem tishmeru et mizvoti..." We say it in the shema regularly. The Ramban seems to make an amazing point! Does Moshe make it rain? Does Moshe make esev in your sadeh (bushes in your fields)? The Ramban takes a much different answer then Ohr Hachaim (in that it is more G-d then Moshe).

The Nefesh HaChaim explains that Moshe is bittul, ONLY the shechinah speaks.

The Ohr HaChaim cant be the simple way we understand "utzmo" (ie: his own words). Everyone agrees on that, but that is my idea what he may mean :).